Causal Inference from Multiple Studies

Anwers

 

 

1.
a.We don't think so. Any company which initiated such a testing program using a pain killer no more effective than the competitor's would have, assuming the studies are done independently, a 1-(.95)12=46% chance of at least one study yielding statistical significance just by chance. If the FDA approves the claim, it is doing so essentially on the basis of a test at a=50% rather than 5%. That's not strong enough evidence for us, and we hope it's not for you.
b. Could be. Then either the companies produce it more effective or a somewhat unusual event (a 1 in 25 chance) has occurred. In other words, p=.04 can then be treated as the genuine p-value.
c. Obviously, it would severely compromise the process.

2.  In the first instance, no, because we would expect a random one of the twenty tests on average to be statistically significant due to chance, and it is not unlikely that two would be so. In the second instance, sure, because statistical significance has been demonstrated on both of two measures chosen in advance as primary in reaching the conclusion. Had a random two measures popped up as statistically significant, it is extremely improbably that these would have been the two singled out before any data were selected.  The other eighteen measures are essentially supplementary information to the two which are of primary interest for substantive reasons. Of course, if the investigator concealed the existence of the eighteen non-significant tests from which two had been selected and emphasized, it would strongly effect our interpretation, and appropriately so. For this reason, such an approach to publication is scientifically and ethically improper.

3. c

4. d

5. e

6. d

7. a
 
8. See FFW, Ch. 11.

9. e

10. a